Tuesday, February 20, 2024

The Homoiousians: are they 'Arians'—correcting some misreprentations

Last week, I received the book, How and What You Worship - Christology and Praxis in the Revelations of Joseph Smith, which contains the papers delivered at the 49th Annual Brigham Young University Sidney B. Sperry Symposium, and published in 2020 by the BYU Religious Studies Center (full book and PDFs available online HERE; videos of the presentations HERE.)

Two of the papers in particular stood out to me: Frederick’s, “Incarnation, Exaltation, and Christological Tension in Doctrine and Covenants 93:1–20”, and Lane's, “Choosing Divinity, Choosing Christ.” Both of these papers contain a misrepresentation of those Christian folk of the fourth century who utilized the Greek term ὁμοιούσιος (homoiousios) to describe the relationship between God the Father and His Only-begotten Son, Jesus Christ. Frederick's wrote:

Debates such as these over the relationship between the Father and Son have deep roots, dating back to the fourth century CE. A similar controversy, which became quite heated and for a time divided the Roman Empire, centered around the question of whether Jesus Christ was homoousia (of the same substance) or simply homoiousia (of a similar substance) with the Father. The latter position was termed Arianism after one of its most prominent proponents, a fourth-century bishop named Arius. (Page 15 - link to paper HERE)

And from Lane we read:

Much of this view of Christ and human beings as agents that choose is different than the Christology of historical Christianity. To connect it with traditional christological and soteriological discussion, one could say that, like the Arians, members of the Church of Jesus Christ see the unity of God the Father and the Son as coming from the perfection of Christ’s will rather than from divine essence or substance. While we would use the Arian term homoiousios, being like God rather than being “of one substance with the Father” (homoousios), for us this does not result in Christ being a creature (that is, not divine) because we do not believe in an ontologically distinct divine substance or essence. (Pages 58, 59 - link to paper HERE)

Neither of the two above authors seem to be aware that the term ὁμοιούσιος (homoiousios) was not an “Arian term”. In fact, the folk of the fourth century who held beliefs that emulated those of Arius (i.e. Homoians and Anhomians), repudiated the term. Perhaps even more importantly, two of the most prominent defenders of the Nicene Creed of 325 A.D. in the fourth century—Athanasius of Alexandria and Hilary of Poitiers—embraced those Christians who preferred the term ὁμοιούσιος (homoiousios) over ὁμοούσιος (homoousios) as brothers in Christ, and as fellow defenders against Arianism. Note the following:

Those who deny the Council altogether, are sufficiently exposed by these brief remarks ; those, however, who accept everything else that was defined at Nicaea, and doubt only about the Coessential [ὁμοούσιον], must not be treated as enemies ; nor do we here attack them as Ariomaniacs, nor as opponents of the Fathers, but we discuss the matter with them as brothers with brothers [ἀδελφοὶ πρὸς ἀδελφοὺς], who mean what we mean, and dispute only about the word. For, confessing that the Son is from the essence of the Father, and not from other subsistence [ὑποστάσεως], and that He is not a creature nor work, but His genuine and natural offspring, and that He is eternally with the Father as being His Word and Wisdom, they are not far from accepting even the phrase, 'Coessential [ὁμοούσιου].' Now such is Basil, who wrote from Ancyra concerning the faith. For only to say 'like according to essence,' is very far from signifying 'of the essence,' by which, rather, as they say themselves, the genuineness of the Son to the Father is signified. Thus tin is only like to silver, a wolf to a dog, and gilt brass to the true metal ; but tin is not from silver, nor could a wolf be accounted the offspring of a dog'. But since they say that He is 'of the essence' and 'Like-in-essence [ὁμοιοούσιον],' what do they signify by these but 'Coessential [ὁμοούσιον]?' (Athanasius, De Synodis 41 – NPNF-2, 4.472 - bold emphasis mine)

And:

Holy brethren, I understand by ὁμοούσιον God of God, not of an essence that is unlike, not divided but born, and that the Son has a birth which is unique, of the substance of the unborn God, that He is begotten yet co-eternal and wholly like the Father. I believed this before I knew the word ὁμοούσιον, but it greatly helped my belief. Why do you condemn my faith when I express it by ὁμοούσιον while you cannot disapprove it when expressed by ὁμοιούσιον ? For you condemn my faith, or rather your own, when you condemn its verbal equivalent. Do others misunderstand it? Let us join in condemning the misunderstanding, but not deprive our faith of its security. Do you think we must subscribe to the Samosatene Council to prevent any one from using ὁμοούσιον in the sense of Paul of Samosata? Then let us also subscribe to the Council of Nicaea, so that the Arians may not impugn the word. Have we to fear that ὁμοιούσιον does not imply the same belief as ὁμοούσιον ? Let us decree that there is no difference between being of one or of a similar substance. The word ὁμοούσιον can be understood in a wrong sense. Let us prove that it can be understood in a very good sense. We hold one and the same sacred truth. I beseech you that we should agree that this truth, which is one and the same, should be regarded as sacred. Forgive me, brethren, as I have so often asked you to do. You are not Arians: why should you be thought to be Arians by denying the ὁμοούσιον ? (Hilary pf Poitiers, De Synodis – On the Councils, 88 – NPNF-2, 9.28 - bold emphasis mine)

Shall end this post with the assessments from two patristic scholars that are germane to our topic at hand:

It is certainly true that in the later chapters of the De Synodis Athanasius accepts that those who teach that the Son is homoiousios to the Father are ‘orthodox’, although he continues to maintain the superiority of homoousios to define the relationship of the Father and the Son. This argument is highly significant in the development of Athanasius’ polemic, as for the first time he acknowledges the possibility that a Christian might hold a different theology to his own, and yet not be ‘Arian’. (Gwynn, The Eusebians, p. 43)

In 360 Athanasius realized that Basil of Ancyra and he were basically fighting for the same cause, and held out a proposal of an alliance even if Basil and his friends retained their scruples about the keyword of the Nicene formula, 'identical in essence' (homoousios) : 'Those who accept the Nicene creed but have doubts about the term homoousios must not be treated as enemies ; we discuss the matter with them as brothers with brothers; they mean the same as we, and dispute only about the word.' The eirenic words introduce Athanasius' longest and best discussion of the meaning of the Nicene formula. The consequent rapprochement between Athanasius and the party of Basil of Ancyra was to contribute much to the ultimate defeat of Arianism. (Chadwick, The Early Church, 1967, p. 144)

 

Grace and peace,

David

11 comments:

Rory said...

Dave, hey.

An admission of shoddy scholarship might be embarrassing to the two authors in question. But if I were LDS, I would simply highlight what Prof. Lane says:

"...we do not believe in an ontologically distinct divine substance or essence."

They believe, if I am not mistaken, that the Father is human and that we are of the same species. They shouldn't be bothering with trying to agree more with similar vs. same substance. They should deny substance theology altogether and certainly not make it sound like they are more sympathetic to Arius than with those who who accepted the two terms under discussion. Arius didn't think the Father was human!

Was Arius raised to the episcopate as one of them proposed?

Thanks,

Rory

David Waltz said...

Hi Rory,

You wrote:

>> They believe, if I am not mistaken, that the Father is human and that we are of the same species.>>

That is correct.

>> They shouldn't be bothering with trying to agree more with similar vs. same substance. They should deny substance theology altogether…>>

Lane, in her paper, wrote:

>>...the subsequent revelations given to Joseph Smith about both Christ and our relationship to God provide a radically different starting point for thinking about Christ’s nature and our relationship to him and to the Father. The perspective of modern-day revelation offers a dramatic change from the assumptions of an ontological divide between Creator and creation that is foundational in traditional Christian theology.>> (p. 44)

And:

>>What we find in the revelations given to Joseph Smith is both a rejection of a fundamental ontological difference between God, including Christ, and all humanity and also a reaffirmation of Christ’s divinity.>> (p. 44)

I suspect the above assessments are based on the notion that "the Father is human and that we are of the same species." A bit later, Lane expands on the premise that God the Father, Jesus Christ and all humans are of "the same species; note the following:

>>Unlike the doctrine of traditional Christianity, in the revelations given to Joseph Smith there is not a distinct ousia or “essence” or “being” that belongs to divinity and one that belongs to humanity. All, both divine and human, share in the same substance or essence or being. I argue that the essential point to understand is that in the ontological framework of the revelations of Joseph Smith, this essence or being is not deterministic—in other words, God does not act as God simply as a function of his being God. It would be better to describe this ousia as agency, or the capacity to choose. God has a godly nature through choice rather than as an inevitable result of what his nature or being/ousia requires him to be.>> (p. 46)

Clearly the God of the Church Fathers, historic Christianity, and even Arius and his followers, is fundamentally a different God than the God being proposed by Lane.

In closing, you asked:

>>Was Arius raised to the episcopate as one of them proposed?>>

An emphatic NO. Arius was a presbyter under the episcopate of Alexander of Alexandria.


Grace and peace,

David

Errol Amey said...

Given how often I've seen seminarians, Th.M holders, etc., get the nuances of this subject wrong, I'm not surprised to see Lane and Frederick fall in with oft repeated misunderstandings. What never did sit well with me was the uncanonical statement that humans are of, "the same species," as the members of the Godhead; a common expression, and yet Latter-day Saint dogma has it that while the Son was already God prior to the incarnation, humanity at large only has a chance at reaching their Divine potential in the Resurrection; likewise, the Son was sinless, whereas the rest of humanity is subject to the fallen nature. The majority of Latter-day Saints I've conversed with on the matter have also extended these particular attributes of Divinity to the Father. I'm not sure how such beliefs don't create a profound ontological distinction between the nature of the Godhead and the nature of mere men.

David Waltz said...

Hi Errol,

I am am out of town until late Tuesday, so my comments shall be brief until my return.

I think your assessments are spot-on. The BoM even more so than the Bible suggests suggests no diminished Divinity for the Son either before or after his incarnation.

The Divine attributes that the Father and the Son possess so greatly exceed the attributes we have as humans, I cannot help but speak of a significant ontological divide.

Much more on my return, the Lord willing.

Grace and peace,

David

David Waltz said...

Hello again Errol,

Whilst reflecting on LDS Christology, the following from Givens came to mind:

>> Mormonism is sometimes charged with Arianism, because of this clear primacy accorded the Father. However, Arianism involved several other claims not applicable to Mormons (such as holding Christ to be a creature rather than fully divine), so the label is inaccurate. The question of how Christ could be fully divine pre-mortally, and at the same time literally begotten in the spirit by the Father, has never been fully resolved in Mormon doctrine.>> (Terryl L. Givens, Wrestling the Angel, 2015, p.120)

In addition to Givens’ above assessment, I would like to suggest that the “question of how Christ could be fully divine pre-mortally”, and yet in some sense ceased to be “fully divine”, and regained that fullness of divinity again after His resurrection—as per the interpretation of Phil. 2:6-10 and D&C 93:1-20 by many LDS authors—“ has never been fully resolved in Mormon doctrine.”

The most exhaustive attempt to do so that I have read to date is found in Blake Ostler’s Exploring Mormon Thought – Of God and Gods. In this contribution he acknowledges that Jesus Christ, "[t]he Son is equally divine with the Father because he possesses the fulness of the divine nature to the same extent as the Father" (page 275).

This possession of "the fulness of the divine nature to the same extent as the Father" has reference to the pre-mortal Jesus Christ and the post-resurrected Jesus Christ. However, Ostler stresses that Jesus Christ did not possess this fulness during his mortal life on Earth. Note the following:

>>...Doctrine and Covenants 93:12-14 clarifies that the Son did not receive a "fulness of grace at first," but "he continued from grace to grace, until he received a fulness, and thus he was called the Son of God because he received not of the fulness at first." While there are undoubtedly other ways that his scripture can be interpreted, I interpret it to mean that Christ has a fulness of divinity of which he emptied himself when he became mortal (though still possessing the divine nature in potentiality) and then he regained a fulness when he again entered into an intimate indwelling love with the Father.>> (Page 270)

The above is problematic for me. Prior to the above Ostler stated, "There are and eternally have been three [the Father, Son and Holy Ghost] who have shared together the fulness of the divine nature." But this cannot be true he also stated, "that Christ has a fulness of divinity of which he emptied himself when he became mortal (though still possessing the divine nature in potentiality ) and then he regained a fulness when he again entered into an intimate indwelling love with the Father." Both cannot be true, unless I have totally missed something.

What do you think?


Grace and peace,

David

Rory said...

Dave...

It sounds like Ostler is saying that when Christ became incarnate, He immediately stopped having "an intimate indwelling love with the Father," that He had before He took a body. At what point do you suppose, would Ostler say that this loving relationship, which Christ had with the Father before He took a body, was regained?

David Waltz said...

Hi Rory,

Ostler appeals to Phil. 2:9-11 for the timing of Christ's 'regaining' of His full divinity.


Grace and peace,

David

Errol Amey said...

David,

So far the only thing I've read from Ostler was his rebuttal of William Lane Craig and Paul Copan's contribution to The New Mormon Challenge, which I found to be quite excellent. Earlier today Tarik LaCour said of Exploring Mormon Thought that, "This is the best systematic treatment of Mormon theology yet written. While I disagree with aspects of it, it’s the best we have and is worthwhile reading." From what I've seen here I imagine I'll end up sharing a similar view of it (though not necessarily for the same reasons). Pursuant to our discussion in your previous blog entry, I do not see how Christ could have divested Himself of His very Divinity and yet retained His free will while leading the only sinless life, this feat seeming to have been facilitated by His Divinity itself. Unless, of course, I, too, am missing something.

Dennis said...

Hi David,

"Doctrine and Covenants 93:12-14 clarifies that the Son did not receive a "fulness of grace at first," but "he continued from grace to grace, until he received a fulness"

What about the OT Theophany where 3 men appear to Abraham & share a meal ? Gen 19:24 God is both on earth & in heaven at the same time. This would suggest Jesus is the one on earth, who is called Lord, meaning He already had full Divinity ?

On another topic, I am wondering if you could address the apologetics against Islam being presented by Sam Shamoun on youtube ? Is he accurate in his arguments ?

Thanks
Dennis

David Waltz said...

Hi Dennis,

So good to see you back. My day has been super busy, with little time for my blog. Tomorrow is pretty much open, allowing me to respond at length to your comments and questions.

Grace and peace,

David

David Waltz said...

Hello again Dennis,

Many of the angelic appearances in the OT were Theophanies of the Son of God (i.e. pre-incarnate Jesus Christ), which include the Genesis 19 reference you mentioned. This is especially true concerning the Theophanies of the Angel of Jehovah/Yahweh and the Angel of His Presence (Is. 63:9). [See THIS POST for more on this topic.]

Interestingly enough, just last week I finished 400 plus page book that delves deeply into the OT Theophanies. It is a great read:

The Angel of the LORD - A Biblical, Historical, and Theological Study

As for the ‘traditional’ Mormon take on Christology, D&C 93 sure seems to contradict a number of passages from the Book of Mormon. In 2 Nephi 31:21b; Alma 11:44b; 3 Nephi 11:36; and Mormon 7:7, the Son is clearly identified as “one God/one Eternal God” with the Father and Holy Ghost. And in D&C 20:27, 28 this “one God” is, “infinite and eternal, without end”.

>>D&C 20: 27, 28 - As well as those who should come after, who should believe in the gifts and callings of God by the Holy Ghost, which beareth record of the Father and of the Son; Which Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are one God, infinite and eternal, without end. Amen.>>

In Mosiah 3:17, 18, 21 the terms “Lord Omnipotent” and “Lord God Omnipotent” are applied to Christ before His incarnation.

IMO, the question that Mormons need to address is how one who is eternal God, infinite, omnipotent and one God with the Father eternally, NOT possess “fullness” until after His resurrection—as per D&C 93.

Now, as for Sam Shamoun, I have not viewed any of his YouTube videos. However, I have read his articles on Islam posted at Answering Islam: LINK.

These articles are pretty solid. But, I have heard from some folk that Sam, on a personal level, can be quite abusive to fellow Christian apologists who differ in their approach to Islamic apologetics.


Grace and peace,

David