In past threads here at AF
(see especially the early threads under the Monarchy
of God the Father label),
I have presented solid,
irrefutable evidence(s) that certain theological titles used in the New
Testament have been reserved for God the Father alone—e.g. "one God",
"the only true God", "the only God", "the only wise God"
and "the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob"—I would now like to add two
more: "the Almighty" and "the Lord God".
The phrase/title "the
Almighty" (Greek:
ὁ παντοκράτωρ) is used only 10 times in the NT, and all but one,
are found in the Book of Revelation: 2 Cor. 6:18; Rev. 1:8; 4:8; 11:17; 15:3;
16:7, 14; 19:6, 15; 21:22.
As for the phrase/title
"the Lord God" (Greek:
κύριος ὁ θεὸς), it is found only 12 times in the NT: Mark 12:29;
Luke 1:32; 1:68; Acts 2:39; 3:22; Rev. 1:8; 4:8; 18:8; 19:6; 21:22; 22:5, 6.
I find it interesting that
the two phrases/titles are found together in 4 of the above verses: Rev. 1:8;
4:8; 19:6; 21:22. Of note in particular, is Rev. 21:22, where we read:
And I saw no temple
therein: for the Lord God the Almighty, and the Lamb, are the temple thereof.
(ASV) (Greek: Καὶ ναὸν οὐκ εἶδον ἐν
αὐτῇ, ὁ γὰρ
κύριος ὁ θεὸς
ὁ παντοκράτωρ ναὸς αὐτῆς ἐστιν,
καὶ τὸ ἀρνίον.)
In the above verse, we have a
distinction being made between two separate persons: "the Lord God the
Almighty" and "the Lamb"; the former being God the Father, and
the latter Jesus Christ, the Son of God.
Now, some commentators have
attempted to designate Jesus Christ as the person who is speaking in Rev. 1:8,
but this is a huge 'stretch'. Please note the following:
To the "amen" of Christ
and the community is added the direct voice of κύριος ὁ θεὁς (kyrios
ho theos, the Lord God). Only here and in 21:5-6 does God speak directly...
(Dr. Grant R. Osborne, Baker Exegetical Commentary of the New Testament -
Revelation, p. 71.)
In footnote #31 on the same page,
Dr. Osborne adds:
While some (Walvoord 1966: 40;
perhaps Carid 1966: 19) have argued that this is Christ rather than the Father
(due to the centrality of Christ in the context), the use of OT designations
for God ("LORD of Hosts" was a favorite OT title) and the repetition
of the title for God in v. [sic; v. should read ch.] 4 make it more likely this
refers to God the Father.
Only here [Rev. 1:8] and in 21:5
does God [the Father] himself speak. (Dr. Robert H. Mounce, The Book of
Revelation, p. 73.)
A careful distinction should be drawn
between the Father as κύριος
ὁ θεὁς (= Yahweh Elohim*)—a designation never used of Christ in
the NT—and Christ as ὁ
κύριός μου καὶ
ὁ θεός μου.
While
distinct from Yahweh, Christ shares his status and his nature. (Dr. Murray J.
Harris, Jesus as God, footnote 86, p. 123.)
Grace and peace,
David
5 comments:
Hi David,
"While distinct from Yahweh, Christ shares his status and his nature"
How fascinating. I'll need to come back to this when work quiets down, but wanted to say thanks for sharing!
In Christ,
John
Hi John,
So good to see you back !!! Earlier this morning, you posted:
=="While distinct from Yahweh, Christ shares his status and his nature"
How fascinating. I'll need to come back to this when work quiets down, but wanted to say thanks for sharing!==
Me: Sure seems to fit into my emerging understanding of the NT, early CFs and original Nicene Creed as it relates to the monarchy of God the Father. Looking forward to your further reflections on this issue when "work quiets down".
God bless,
David
Hi David,
So good to see you posting again, always happy to read your articles. I think your article said is so well and I think no amendment can be made on this point.
I noted an interesting thing (through Anthony Buzzard), that the word Lord God in Hebrew has a special vowel point (a qamets) to distinguish with the normal plural for Lord Adonai (a patach). While the singular form Adoni is used for human lord or leader. And that is the case for Psalm 110:1, the second lord.
Would like to know your thoughts.
Thanks,
Mark
Hi Mark,
Thanks much for taking the time to post, it is always great to hear from you. Last night, you wrote:
==I noted an interesting thing (through Anthony Buzzard), that the word Lord God in Hebrew has a special vowel point (a qamets) to distinguish with the normal plural for Lord Adonai (a patach). While the singular form Adoni is used for human lord or leader. And that is the case for Psalm 110:1, the second lord.
Would like to know your thoughts.==
Couple of important points: first, in Hebrew the NT Greek phrase, κύριος ὁ θεὸς is Yahweh Elohim, not Adonai Elohim; and second, in the Hebrew of Psalm 110:1, the first Lord is Yahweh, while the second is Adonai.
As for Hebrew vowel points, they were not introduced into the Biblical texts until the 6th century AD.
Grace and peace,
David
Lxx earliest usages connect with the Hebrew El shaddi and relate to the more feminine aspect of YHWH - mighty nurturer.
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