James Swan of the Beggars All blog, on
04-05-15, added "Addendum #2" to his recent thread (link), that I commented on in my last post
here at AF (link).
He begins "Addendum #2" with the following
highly subjective opinion:
The
response was written by an ex-defender of Rome (if I recall correctly) with
whom this blog has interacted with over the years. Of my interactions with this
blogger, I've noticed the imprecise defining of theological positions (the very
thing I'm being accused of with his latest response).
James
certainly has the right to share his opinion(s) with us, but I hope he realizes
that such subjective opinions will not carry much weight with informed readers.
Before moving on to his ONE example of my supposed "imprecise
defining of theological positions", I would like to point out his
statement that I was "an ex-defender of Rome" is
"imprecise". What precisely does he mean by "Rome" ??? Does
he mean the Rome of the historic Roman empire ? Does he mean the "Roman Church"
as understood by Martin Luther, in distinction from the Papacy ? Does he mean
the Bishops of Rome, in distinction from the official documents of the historic
"Catholic Tradition" ? Does he mean the Roman Catholic Church as a
separate denomination from the hundreds of other Christian sects ? (Hope
everyone realizes that I am using the above questioning as a hyperbolic
function.)
James
then wrote:
For instance, in our previous interaction, the blogger thinks
Luther held the
"Roman church" is a true church, but failed to account for Luther's important distinction between the
Roman church and the papal church. He used a quote without a context (that
when read in context, demonstrates the distinction).
In our earlier
"interactions", James had the decency to refer to me by name, but
now, I am just "the blogger" (condescension ?). Be that as it may, I
find the phrase, "the blogger thinks Luther
held the "Roman Church" is a
true church, to be "imprecise", and this because it gives one the
initial impression that Luther himself did not believe that the Roman Catholic
Church of his day retained enough truth to still be considered a Christian
church; that this is something I just 'think' he held to. Thankfully, James
does clear this matter up in an older post of his; note the following:
Mr.
Waltz is accurate: the
particular quote he utilized does
point out that Luther did not deny the
Roman church was a Christian church: "I honor the Roman Church. She
is pious, has God’s Word and Baptism, and is holy."
It seems
that James' charge of imprecision has nothing to do with whether or not the
quote I provided was accurate, for he agrees with me that, "Luther did not
deny the Roman church was a
Christian church"; which, for the record, was EXACTLY what I was
attempting to convey in my original post (link). With this in mind, I think it is important ask why
James believes that my quote is "out of context" if the distinction
(the fact the Luther separated the Papacy from the "Roman Church") he
obsesses on is not included ? (I suspect that I am not the only one who
believes that no less than five specific threads on this issue, plus the "Addendum #2", lies within the realm of
obsession).
In my 'book', for a quote to be construed as
"out of context", the quote would have to convey a meaning that is in
some sense untrue. Since James has clearly stated that the quote I provided
"is accurate" and conveys the fact that, "Luther
did not deny the Roman church
was a Christian church", I find little value in his charge.
Further,
I would argue that if one obsesses on the distinction that Luther believed the
Pope/Papacy to be the "Antichrist" (something pretty much everyone
who has knows anything about Luther's beliefs is quite aware of), while
leaving out his belief concerning the "Roman church", the odds of
misconstruing Luther is much greater. [Ask yourselves this: how many times have
you come upon the quote that I provided in my post, in treatments on Luther
from authors who write from an anti-Catholic position ? Compare those rare
instances with the number of times one finds reference(s) to his position on
the Pope/Papacy.]
Before
moving on to rest of James' "Addendum
#2", I would like to provide a quote from the first of James' five threads on
this issue:
Since
Rome officially anathematized the Gospel at Trent, I don't consider her part of
the Catholic Church. The debate on this amongst the reformed still goes on. In
fact, it was debated by James White and Douglas Wilson: ARE ROMAN CATHOLICS ARE
BROTHERS AND SISTERS IN CHRIST? . Here would be
a good example of something I part company with Luther on, and even many of my
Reformed friends. I don't think the papacy can be extracted from the Church of
Rome and still have the term "Church of Rome" make sense. (link)
Am I the
only person who finds it a bit strange that James has "part[ed] company
with Luther on, and even many of my Reformed friends", on an issue he has
spent so much time documenting ???
[BTW,
the debate referenced by James is now available on YouTube: LINK.]
James then wrote:
I would
argue that the Watchtower's view of faith in relation to works, and faith and
its relationship to the righteousness of Christ (Luther's "great
exchange") are fundamentally different than what Luther held to. So in his
present criticism, the blogger equates Luther's view of sola fide and the Watchtower's alleged view of sola fide, without actually presenting
Luther's view of sola fide and comparing it to what he purports
the Watchtower believes. Nor have I come across anything from the Watchtower in
which they actually attempt to explain Luther's view in comparison to their own
view.
I am
anything but an 'expert' on "Luther's view of sola fide"; but, I am somewhat of an 'expert' on the
Jehovah's Witnesses current (and past) take on this matter. With that said, I
do not recall EVER stating that the JWs current understanding of sola fide is
identical (the same) to that of Luther. (Though not an expert on Luther, I am aware
of at least three very important distinctions: the relationship between
baptism/baptismal regeneration and faith; the issue of whether or not one who
has been justified by faith [alone] can fall into unbelief; the unique JW 'two
class' distinction.) With that said, I would argue that James has completely
missed the point I was attempting convey: JWs currently believe that one is
justified by faith [alone], not by some faith and works
construct—works/obedience, "simply demonstrates that their
faith is genuine".
James then focuses on only one the three selections I
provided in my post; the one, which of course, can be most easily distorted.
Interestingly enough, he even gets the document I quoted from wrong, attributing it
to the 1988 2 volume document, Insight on the Scriptures, not the 1971
document I actually quoted from, Aid to Bible Understanding. Though the
document Insight on the Scriptures, borrows without any change a
considerable portion of the material found in Aid to Bible Understanding, the
two are separate, distinct works. For instance, the last selection he provides
from "This document", is not to be found at all in Aid to Bible
Understanding. Since the content of the two documents does not represent
any change in the JWs position on faith [alone], I will relegate his error to
sloppy referencing.
James also posted:
"Missing is any discussion of
Christ taking upon himself the sin of the world..."
If James thinks that JWs reject the clear Biblical
teaching found in John 1:29 and 1 John 2:2, et al. ("Behold the Lamb of God,
which taketh away the sin of the world";
"And
he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the
sins of the whole world" -
KJV), he is grossly mistaken. The affirmation of this teaching is found is
dozens of JW documents, including both the Aid to Bible Understanding and
Insight on the Scriptures (see the contributions in both documents under
the "ATONEMENT" section).
[BTW, I sincerely wonder if James, an avowed
Calvinist, believes that Jesus, the Lamb of God, has taking upon Himself the
sin/s of the "unregenerate" ???]
James ends his opinionated piece with:
I'm not
entirely sure of the motivations of this blogger, but the application of
equivocation to distinct theologies leads me to wonder if this particular
person has embraced some form of a universal
Fatherhood of God and theBrotherhood
of Man approach to Christian
theism (or perhaps theism in general).
Since I
do not believe that the JWs current
understanding of sola fide is identical (the same) to that of Luther,
the charge of "equivocation" is baseless. As for "the
motivations of this blogger", I wanted to clear up some misconceptions
concerning the theology of the sect I was born into, and have kept a keen eye
on throughout my life. [BTW James, what are your "motivations" ???]
Though much more could be related, I shall end my
reflections on James' charges for now. I sincerely hope that others than James
and myself have some shared interest in the issues that have been touched on...
Grace and peace,
2 comments:
David,
I am actually a bit surprised Swan didn't dismiss you because your were not using "original sources".
I am not sure what he means by "original sources" but he sure says it a lot when he wants to discount anyone who speaks ill of Luther ( why? Swan is not even a Lutheran ).
Perhaps Swan reads old documents in the original German. I don't know. Do you?
Hi Guy,
I am pretty sure that Mr. Swan is not fluent in German, so he relies on English translations for his interpretations of Luther.
As for Mr. Swan's religion, he is a member of the "Pompton Plains Reformed Bible Church", which is one of the schismatic churches in the United Reformed Churches in North America denomination—a denomination of some "110+ churches"—which split from the Christian Reformed Church in 1996. (See this LINK for more info on the URCNA.)
Grace and peace,
David
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